This from a recent issue of the Times Literary Supplement, the next-to-last (I believe) in a series of letters exchanged on the matter of how to properly translate Aristophanes:
Interestingly, there is a long-running scholarly discussion (sometimes also reflected on the TLS pages) on the extent to which homoerotic behaviors in the ancient world reflected actual homosexual, physical relationships. I would say the literary evidence cited above is pretty conclusive.
